21 Jun
2006
21 Jun
'06
11:57 a.m.
I answered this once before in this thread. The answer is yes, very nearly. Since the actual distribution of births is about 51% or 52% boys, this introduces a skew into the result. The only other significant difference is the incidence of identical twins, which according to Wikipedia is about 1 or 2 per thousand births. Any deviation of individual couples from the usual distribution is so small as to be virtually undetectable. Franklin T. Adams-Watters -----Original Message----- From: David Gale <gale@math.berkeley.edu> ... PS. Are there really twice as many boy-girl families as girl-girl or boy-boy? It shouldn't be too hard to check. Maybe certain couples are biologically more likely to produce one sex over the other.