Propp's conjecture would imply a prime between n^2 and (n+1)^2,
which conjecture I believe is stil outstanding.
----- Original Message -----
From:
Richard Guy
To:
math-fun
Sent:
Wednesday, June 04, 2003 5:47 PM
Subject:
Re: [math-fun] a prime in each row?
Yes, but you're not going to be able to prove it. R.
On Wed, 4 Jun 2003, James Propp wrote:
> When you write the numbers from 1 to n^2 in n rows of length n
> (with n > 1 arbitrary), does each row contain a prime?
>
> Jim Propp