22 Nov
2013
22 Nov
'13
12:05 p.m.
However, the finiteness argument seems much more likely to be valid if you want to claim that the number of (triple) palindromes in bases 2, 3, and 5 simultaneously, is finite. (And probably zero.) Again, under the prob-independence assumption I can prove this is the case with probability=1. -- Warren D. Smith http://RangeVoting.org <-- add your endorsement (by clicking "endorse" as 1st step)