Re: [math-fun] one-line/proof without words/elegant proof thatcoeffs of (1+x)^n approx a Gaussian?

<< Why should a discrete distribution (the binomial coefficients) approach the continuous distribution ~ exp(-(x/sigma)^2/2), . . .

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Because the limit is taken of cumulative probability functions (cdf) F_n(x) = Prob{X_n <= x) (where X_n's are random variables with the distributions in question). --Dan