[math-fun] Number theory question

30 May 2017


      Let !n = 0! + 1! + ... + n! = A003422(n)

For integer k, is it true that

	!a == k (mod a)

and

	!b == k (mod b)

together imply

	!c == k (mod c)

where

	c = lcm(a, b)

?

[math-fun] Number theory question

David Wilson